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1994-11-20
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Continued from file EXTRA-2.ASC...
4BH-1B.1 In a pulse-position modulation system, what parameter
does the modulating signal vary?
A. The number of pulses per second
B. Both the frequency and amplitude of the pulses
C. The duration of the pulses
D. The time at which each pulse occurs
4BH-1B.2 Why is the transmitter peak power in a pulse modulation
system much greater than its average power?
A. The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
B. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated
C. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes
are generated within the modulator
D. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are
also amplitude modulated
4BH-1B.3 What is one way that voice is transmitted in a pulse-
width modulation system?
A. A standard pulse is varied in amplitude by an amount
depending on the voice waveform at that instant
B. The position of a standard pulse is varied by an amount
depending on the voice waveform at that instant
C. A standard pulse is varied in duration by an amount
depending on the voice waveform at that instant
D. The number of standard pulses per second varies depending
on the voice waveform at that instant
4BH-2A.1 What digital code consists of elements having unequal
length?
A. ASCII
B. AX.25
C. Baudot
D. Morse code
4BH-2B.1 What digital communications system is well suited for
meteor-scatter communications?
A. ACSSB
B. AMTOR
C. Packet radio
D. Spread spectrum
4BH-2B.2 The International Organization for Standardization has
developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio
communications structure. What level is responsible for the
actual transmission of data and handshaking signals?
A. The physical layer
B. The transport layer
C. The communications layer
D. The synchronization layer
4BH-2B.3 The International Organization for Standardization has
developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio
communications structure. What level arranges the bits into
frames and controls data flow?
A. The transport layer
B. The link layer
C. The communications layer
D. The synchronization layer
4BH-2C.1 What is one advantage of using the ASCII code, with its
larger character set, instead of the Baudot code?
A. ASCII includes built-in error-correction features
B. ASCII characters contain fewer information bits than Baudot
characters
C. It is possible to transmit upper and lower case text
D. The larger character set allows store-and-forward control
characters to be added to a message
4BH-2D.1 What type of error control system does ++++Mode A AMTOR++++ use?
A. Each character is sent twice
B. The receiving station checks the calculated frame check
sequence (FCS) against the transmitted FCS
C. Mode A AMTOR does not include an error control system
D. The receiving station automatically requests repeats when
needed
4BH-2D.2 What type of error control system does ++++Mode B AMTOR++++ use?
A. Each character is sent twice
B. The receiving station checks the calculated frame check
sequence (FCS) against the transmitted FCS
C. Mode B AMTOR does not include an error control system
D. The receiving station automatically requests repeats when
needed
4BH-2E.1 What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY data
pulse?
A. 11 milliseconds
B. 40 milliseconds
C. 31 milliseconds
D. 22 milliseconds
4BH-2E.2 What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY start
pulse?
A. 11 milliseconds
B. 22 milliseconds
C. 31 milliseconds
D. 40 milliseconds
4BH-2E.3 What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY stop
pulse?
A. 11 milliseconds
B. 18 milliseconds
C. 31 milliseconds
D. 40 milliseconds
4BH-2E.4 What is the primary advantage of AMTOR over Baudot RTTY?
A. AMTOR characters contain fewer information bits than Baudot
characters
B. AMTOR includes an error detection system
C. Surplus radioteletype machines that use the AMTOR code are
readily available
D. Photographs can be transmitted using AMTOR
4BH-2F.1 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift,
45-baud Baudot emission F1B transmission?
A. 45 Hz
B. 249 Hz
C. 442 Hz
D. 600 Hz
4BH-2F.2 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift,
45-baud Baudot emission J2B transmission?
A. 45 Hz
B. 249 Hz
C. 442 Hz
D. 600 Hz
4BH-2F.3 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift,
74-baud Baudot emission F1B transmission?
A. 250 Hz
B. 278 Hz
C. 442 Hz
D. 600 Hz
4BH-2F.4 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift,
74-baud Baudot emission J2B transmission?
A. 250 Hz
B. 278 Hz
C. 442 Hz
D. 600 Hz
4BH-2F.5 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM
international Morse code emission A1A transmission?
A. Approximately 13 Hz
B. Approximately 26 Hz
C. Approximately 52 Hz
D. Approximately 104 Hz
4BH-2F.6 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM
international Morse code emission J2A transmission?
A. Approximately 13 Hz
B. Approximately 26 Hz
C. Approximately 52 Hz
D. Approximately 104 Hz
4BH-2F.7 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 1000-hertz shift,
1200-baud ASCII emission F1D transmission?
A. 1000 Hz
B. 1200 Hz
C. 440 Hz
D. 2400 Hz
4BH-2F.8 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-hertz
frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII emission F1D transmission?
A. 15.36 kHz
B. 9.6 kHz
C. 4.8 kHz
D. 5.76 kHz
4BH-2F.9 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-hertz
frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII emission J2D transmission?
A. 15.36 kHz
B. 9.6 kHz
C. 4.8 kHz
D. 5.76 kHz
4BH-2F.10 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 5-WPM
international Morse code emission A1A transmission?
A. Approximately 5 Hz
B. Approximately 10 Hz
C. Approximately 20 Hz
D. Approximately 40 Hz
4BH-2F.11 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 5-WPM
international Morse code emission J2A transmission?
A. Approximately 5 Hz
B. Approximately 10 Hz
C. Approximately 20 Hz
D. Approximately 40 Hz
4BH-2F.12 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift,
110-baud ASCII emission F1B transmission?
A. 304 Hz
B. 314 Hz
C. 608 Hz
D. 628 Hz
4BH-2F.13 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift,
110-baud ASCII emission J2B transmission?
A. 304 Hz
B. 314 Hz
C. 608 Hz
D. 628 Hz
4BH-2F.14 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift,
300-baud ASCII emission F1D transmission?
A. 0 Hz
B. 0.3 kHz
C. 0.5 kHz
D. 1.0 kHz
4BH-2F.15 What is the necessary bandwidth for a 170-hertz shift,
300-baud ASCII emission J2D transmission?
A. 0 Hz
B. 0.3 kHz
C. 0.5 kHz
D. 1.0 kHz
4BH-3.1 What is ++++amplitude compandored single sideband++++?
A. Reception of single sideband with a conventional CW
receiver
B. Reception of single sideband with a conventional FM
receiver
C. Single sideband incorporating speech compression at the
transmitter and speech expansion at the receiver
D. Single sideband incorporating speech expansion at the
transmitter and speech compression at the receiver
4BH-3.2 What is meant by ++++compandoring++++?
A. Compressing speech at the transmitter and expanding it at
the receiver
B. Using an audio-frequency signal to produce pulse-length
modulation
C. Combining amplitude and frequency modulation to produce a
single-sideband signal
D. Detecting and demodulating a single-sideband signal by
converting it to a pulse-modulated signal
4BH-3.3 What is the purpose of a ++++pilot tone++++ in an amplitude
compandored single sideband system?
A. It permits rapid tuning of a mobile receiver
B. It replaces the suppressed carrier at the receiver
C. It permits rapid change of frequency to escape high-powered
interference
D. It acts as a beacon to indicate the present propagation
characteristic of the band
4BH-3.4 What is the approximate frequency of the ++++pilot tone++++ in an
amplitude compandored single sideband system?
A. 1 kHz
B. 5 MHz
C. 455 kHz
D. 3 kHz
4BH-3.5 How many more voice transmissions can be packed into a
given frequency band for amplitude-compandored single-sideband
systems over conventional FM-phone systems?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
4BH-4.1 What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications
system in which the RF carrier varies according to some
predetermined sequence?
A. Amplitude compandored single sideband
B. AMTOR
C. Time-domain frequency modulation
D. Spread spectrum communication
4BH-4.2 What is the term used to describe a ++++spread spectrum
communications system++++ where the center frequency of a
conventional carrier is altered many times per second in
accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?
A. Frequency hopping
B. Direct sequence
C. Time-domain frequency modulation
D. Frequency compandored spread spectrum
4BH-4.3 What term is used to describe a ++++spread spectrum
communications system++++ in which a very fast binary bit stream is
used to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
A. Frequency hopping
B. Direct sequence
C. Binary phase-shift keying
D. Phase compandored spread spectrum
4BH-5.1 What is the term for the amplitude of the maximum
positive excursion of a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope?
A. Peak-to-peak voltage
B. Inverse peak negative voltage
C. RMS voltage
D. Peak positive voltage
4BH-5.2 What is the term for the amplitude of the maximum
negative excursion of a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope?
A. Peak-to-peak voltage
B. Inverse peak positive voltage
C. RMS voltage
D. Peak negative voltage
4BH-6A.1 What is the easiest voltage amplitude dimension to
measure by viewing a pure sine wave signal on an oscilloscope?
A. Peak-to-peak voltage
B. RMS voltage
C. Average voltage
D. DC voltage
4BH-6A.2 What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak
voltage and the peak voltage amplitude in a symmetrical wave
form?
A. 1:1
B. 2:1
C. 3:1
D. 4:1
4BH-6A.3 What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating
the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?
A. Peak voltage
B. Average voltage
C. RMS voltage
D. Resting voltage
4BI-1A.1 What is an ++++isotropic radiator++++?
A. A hypothetical, omnidirectional antenna
B. In the northern hemisphere, an antenna whose directive
pattern is constant in southern directions
C. An antenna high enough in the air that its directive
pattern is substantially unaffected by the ground beneath it
D. An antenna whose directive pattern is substantially
unaffected by the spacing of the elements
4BI-1B.1 When is it useful to refer to an ++++isotropic radiator++++?
A. When comparing the gains of directional antennas
B. When testing a transmission line for standing wave ratio
C. When (in the northern hemisphere) directing the
transmission in a southerly direction
D. When using a dummy load to tune a transmitter
4BI-1B.2 What theoretical reference antenna provides a comparison
for antenna measurements?
A. Quarter-wave vertical
B. Yagi
C. Bobtail curtain
D. Isotropic radiator
4BI-1B.3 What purpose does an ++++isotropic radiator++++ serve?
A. It is used to compare signal strengths (at a distant point)
of different transmitters
B. It is used as a reference for antenna gain measurements
C. It is used as a dummy load for tuning transmitters
D. It is used to measure the standing-wave-ratio on a
transmission line
4BI-1B.4 How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole have over an
++++isotropic radiator++++?
A. About 1.5 dB
B. About 2.1 dB
C. About 3.0 dB
D. About 6.0 dB
4BI-1B.5 How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength
dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an ++++isotropic radiator++++?
A. About 3.9 dB
B. About 6.0 dB
C. About 8.1 dB
D. About 10.0 dB
4BI-1B.6 How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength
dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an ++++isotropic radiator++++?
A. About 6.1 dB
B. About 9.9 dB
C. About 12.0 dB
D. About 14.1 dB
4BI-1C.1 What is the antenna pattern for an ++++isotropic radiator++++?
A. A figure-8
B. A unidirectional cardioid
C. A parabola
D. A sphere
4BI-1C.2 What type of directivity pattern does an ++++isotropic
radiator++++ have?
A. A figure-8
B. A unidirectional cardioid
C. A parabola
D. A sphere
4BI-2A.1 What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees
out of phase?
A. Unidirectional cardioid
B. Omnidirectional
C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
4BI-2A.2 What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees
out of phase?
A. Unidirectional cardioid
B. Figure-8 end-fire
C. Figure-8 broadside
D. Omnidirectional
4BI-2A.3 What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed in phase?
A. Omnidirectional
B. Cardioid unidirectional
C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
4BI-2A.4 How far apart should two 1/4-wavelength vertical
antennas be spaced in order to produce a figure-8 pattern that is
broadside to the plane of the verticals when fed in phase?
A. 1/8 wavelength
B. 1/4 wavelength
C. 1/2 wavelength
D. 1 wavelength
4BI-2A.5 How many 1/2 wavelengths apart should two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas be spaced to produce a figure-8 pattern that is
in line with the vertical antennas when they are fed 180 degrees
out of phase?
A. One half wavelength apart
B. Two half wavelengths apart
C. Three half wavelengths apart
D. Four half wavelengths apart
4BI-2A.6 What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees
out of phase?
A. Omnidirectional
B. Cardioid unidirectional
C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
4BI-2A.7 What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas spaced 1/8 wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees
out of phase?
A. Omnidirectional
B. Cardioid unidirectional
C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
4BI-2A.8 What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas spaced 1/8 wavelength apart and fed in phase?
A. Omnidirectional
B. Cardioid unidirectional
C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
4BI-2A.9 What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed in phase?
A. Substantially unidirectional
B. Elliptical
C. Cardioid unidirectional
D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
4BI-3A.1 What is a ++++resonant rhombic antenna++++?
A. A unidirectional antenna, each of whose sides is equal to
half a wavelength and which is terminated in a resistance equal
to its characteristic impedance
B. A bidirectional antenna open at the end opposite that to
which the transmission line is connected and with each side
approximately equal to one wavelength
C. An antenna with an LC network at each vertex (other than
that to which the transmission line is connected) tuned to
resonate at the operating frequency
D. A high-frequency antenna, each of whose sides contains
traps for changing the resonance to match the band in use
4BI-3B.1 What is a ++++nonresonant rhombic antenna++++?
A. A unidirectional antenna terminated in a resistance equal
to its characteristic impedance
B. An open-ended bidirectional antenna
C. An antenna resonant at approximately double the frequency
of the intended band of operation
D. A horizontal triangular antenna consisting of two adjacent
sides and the long diagonal of a resonant rhombic antenna
4BI-3B.2 What are the advantages of a ++++nonresonant rhombic
antenna++++?
A. Wide frequency range, high gain and high front-to-back
ratio
B. High front-to-back ratio, compact size and high gain
C. Unidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and compact
size
D. Bidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and wide
frequency range
4BI-3B.3 What are the disadvantages of a ++++nonresonant rhombic
antenna++++?
A. It requires a large area for proper installation and has a
narrow bandwidth
B. It requires a large area for proper installation and has a
low front-to-back ratio
C. It requires a large amount of aluminum tubing and has a low
front-to-back ratio
D. It requires a large area and four sturdy supports for
proper installation
4BI-3B.4 What is the characteristic impedance at the input of a
++++nonresonant rhombic antenna++++?
A. 50 to 55 ohms
B. 70 to 75 ohms
C. 300 to 350 ohms
D. 700 to 800 ohms
4BI-3C.1 What is the effect of a ++++terminating resistor++++ on a
rhombic antenna?
A. It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back
to the transmitter
B. It changes the radiation pattern from essentially
bidirectional to essentially unidirectional
C. It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to
vertical polarization
D. It decreases the ground loss
4BI-3C.2 What should be the value of the ++++terminating resistor++++ on
a rhombic antenna?
A. About 50 ohms
B. About 75 ohms
C. About 800 ohms
D. About 1800 ohms
4BI-4A.1 What factors determine the receiving antenna gain
required at an amateur station in earth operation?
A. Height, transmitter power and antennas of satellite
B. Length of transmission line and impedance match between
receiver and transmission line
C. Preamplifier location on transmission line and presence or
absence of RF amplifier stages
D. Height of earth antenna and satellite orbit
4BI-4A.2 What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur
station in earth operation?
A. Satellite antennas and height, satellite receiver
sensitivity
B. Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio
C. Satellite transmitter power and orientation of ground
receiving antenna
D. Elevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise
ratio, satellite transmitter power
4BI-4A.3 What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur
station in telecommand operation?
A. Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio
B. Satellite antennas and height, satellite receiver
sensitivity
C. Satellite transmitter power and orientation of ground
receiving antenna
D. Elevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise
ratio, satellite transmitter power
4BI-4A.4 How does the gain of a parabolic dish type antenna
change when the operating frequency is doubled?
A. Gain does not change
B. Gain is multiplied by 0.707
C. Gain increases 6 dB
D. Gain increases 3 dB
4BI-4B.1 What happens to the beamwidth of an antenna as the gain
is increased?
A. The beamwidth increases geometrically as the gain is
increased
B. The beamwidth increases arithmetically as the gain is
increased
C. The beamwidth is essentially unaffected by the gain of the
antenna
D. The beamwidth decreases as the gain is increased
4BI-4B.2 What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna
with a gain of 20 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
A. 10.1 degrees
B. 20.3 degrees
C. 45.0 degrees
D. 60.9 degrees
4BI-4B.3 What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna
with a gain of 30 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
A. 3.2 degrees
B. 6.4 degrees
C. 37 degrees
D. 60.4 degrees
4BI-4B.4 What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna
with a gain of 15 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
A. 72 degrees
B. 52 degrees
C. 36.1 degrees
D. 3.61 degrees
4BI-4B.5 What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna
with a gain of 12 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
A. 34.8 degrees
B. 45.0 degrees
C. 58.0 degrees
D. 51.0 degrees
4BI-4C.1 How is circular polarization produced using linearly-
polarized antennas?
A. Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an
array with the respective elements in parallel planes
B. Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the
respective elements in parallel planes
C. Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the
driven elements in the same plane, fed 90 degrees out of phase
D. Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the
driven elements in the same plane, fed in phase
4BI-4C.2 Why does an antenna system for ++++earth operation++++ (for
communications through a satellite) need to have rotators for
both azimuth and elevation control?
A. In order to point the antenna above the horizon to avoid
terrestrial interference
B. Satellite antennas require two rotators because they are so
large and heavy
C. In order to track the satellite as it orbits the earth
D. The elevation rotator points the antenna at the satellite
and the azimuth rotator changes the antenna polarization
4BI-5.1 What term describes a method used to match a high-
impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by
connecting the line to the driven element in two places, spaced a
fraction of a wavelength on each side of the driven element
center?
A. The gamma matching system
B. The delta matching system
C. The omega matching system
D. The stub matching system
4BI-5.2 What term describes an unbalanced feed system in which
the driven element is fed both at the center of that element and
a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?
A. The gamma matching system
B. The delta matching system
C. The omega matching system
D. The stub matching system
4BI-5.3 What term describes a method of antenna impedance
matching that uses a short section of transmission line connected
to the antenna feed line near the antenna and perpendicular to
the feed line?
A. The gamma matching system
B. The delta matching system
C. The omega matching system
D. The stub matching system
4BI-5.4 What should be the approximate capacitance of the
resonating capacitor in a gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-
wavelength dipole antenna for the 20-meter wavelength band?
A. 70 pF
B. 140 pF
C. 200 pF
D. 0.2 pF
4BI-5.5 What should be the approximate capacitance of the
resonating capacitor in a gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-
wavelength dipole antenna for the 10-meter wavelength band?
A. 70 pF
B. 140 pF
C. 200 pF
D. 0.2 pF
4BI-6A.1 What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength
transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted
at the far end?
A. A capacitive reactance
B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
C. An inductive reactance
D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator
stage
4BI-6A.2 What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength
transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at
the far end?
A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
B. An inductive reactance
C. A capacitive reactance
D. The same as the input impedance of the final generator
stage
4BI-6B.1 What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength
transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted
at the far end?
A. A very high impedance
B. A very low impedance
C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the
transmission line
D. The same as the generator output impedance
4BI-6B.2 What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength
transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at
the far end?
A. A very high impedance
B. A very low impedance
C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator
stage
4BI-6C.1 What kind of impedance does a 3/8-wavelength
transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted
at the far end?
A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
B. An inductive reactance
C. A capacitive reactance
D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator
stage
4BI-6C.2 What kind of impedance does a 3/8-wavelength
transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at
the far end?
A. A capacitive reactance
B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
C. An inductive reactance
D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator
stage
4BI-6D.1 What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength
transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted
at the far end?
A. A very high impedance
B. A very low impedance
C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
D. The same as the output impedance of the generator
4BI-6D.2 What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength
transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at
the far end?
A. A very high impedance
B. A very low impedance
C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
D. The same as the output impedance of the generator
Answers
4BA-1A.1 B
4BA-1A.2 A
4BA-1A.3 A
4BA-1A.4 D
4BA-1A.5 C
4BA-1B.1 A
4BA-1B.2 B
4BA-1B.3 D
4BA-1B.4 D
4BA-1C.1 B
4BA-1C.2 B
4BA-1C.3 A
4BA-1D.1 B
4BA-1E.1 A
4BA-1E.2 B
4BA-2A.1 A
4BA-2B.1 B
4BA-2B.2 A
4BA-2C.1 C
4BA-2D.1 C
4BA-3A.1 B
4BA-3B.1 A
4BA-3C.1 C
4BA-3D.1 D
4BA-3E.1 A
4BA-3F.1 D
4BA-3G.1 A
4BA-3H.1 C
4BA-3H.2 A
4BA-3I.1 C
4BA-4A.1 C
4BA-4B.1 A
4BA-4C-1.1 B
4BA-4C-2.1 D
4BA-4D-1.1 C
4BA-4E-1.1 D
4BA-4E-2.1 D
4BA-4E-4.1 D
4BA-4E-4.2 C
4BA-4E-4.3 D
4BA-4F-1.1 A
4BA-4F-2.1 A
4BA-5A.1 C
4BA-5B.1 B
4BA-5C.1 A
4BA-5C.2 A
4BA-5C.3 A
4BA-5C.4 A
4BA-5C.5 A
4BA-5C.6 A
4BA-5D.1 B
4BA-5E.1 A
4BA-5E.2 A
4BA-5F.1 D
4BA-5F.2 B
4BA-5F.3 A
4BA-5F.4 D
4BA-5G.1 A
4BA-5G.2 B
4BA-5G.3 A
4BA-5G.4 C
4BA-5G.5 B
4BA-5G.6 A
4BA-6A.1 B
4BA-6A.2 B
4BA-6B.1 B
4BA-6B.2 B
4BA-6B.3 B
4BA-6B.4 B
4BA-6B.5 A
4BA-6C.1 D
4BA-6C.2 A
4BA-6C.3 C
4BA-6D.1 D
4BA-6D.2 A
4BA-7A-1.1 A
4BA-7A-1.2 D
4BA-7A-1.3 A
4BA-7A-1.4 C
4BA-7A-1.5 C
4BA-7A-1.6 D
4BA-7A-1.7 C
4BA-7A-1.8 D
4BA-7A-2.1 A
4BA-7A-2.2 D
4BA-7A-2.3 A
4BA-7A-2.4 A
4BA-7A-2.5 D
4BA-7A-2.6 D
4BA-7B.1 D
4BA-7B.2 D
4BA-7B.3 A
4BA-7B.4 C
4BA-7C.1 A
4BA-7C.2 B
4BA-7C.3 B
4BA-7C.4 D
4BA-7C.5 C
4BA-7C.6 B
4BA-7C.7 A
4BA-7C.8 C
4BA-7C.9 C
4BA-7D.1 D
4BA-7D.2 A
4BA-7D.3 C
4BA-7D.4 B
4BA-7D.5 B
4BA-7E.1 C
4BA-7E.2 B
4BA-7E.3 A
4BA-7E.4 D
4BA-7E.5 A
4BA-7E.6 B
4BA-7F.1 A
4BA-7F.2 B
4BA-7F.3 D
4BA-7F.4 B
4BB-1A.1 C
4BB-1A.2 A
4BB-1A.3 C
4BB-1B.1 D
4BB-1B.2 B
4BB-1B.3 B
4BB-1B.4 B
4BB-1C.1 B
4BB-1C.2 A
4BB-1D.1 D
4BB-1D.2 A
4BB-1D.3 B
4BB-2A.1 A
4BB-2A.2 C
4BB-2A.3 C
4BB-2A.4 B
4BB-2A.5 A
4BB-2A.6 D
4BB-2A.7 C
4BB-2A.8 B
4BB-2A.9 C
4BC-1.1 D
4BC-1.2 B
4BC-1.3 A
4BC-1.4 D
4BC-1.5 B
4BC-2.1 B
4BC-2.2 C
4BC-3.1 A
4BC-3.2 C
4BC-3.3 C
4BC-4.1 C
4BC-5.1 D
4BD-1A.1 C
4BD-1A.2 D
4BD-1A.3 A
4BD-1B.1 A
4BD-1B.2 B
4BD-2A.1 D
4BD-2A.2 C
4BD-2A.3 D
4BD-2B.1 A
4BD-3A.1 A
4BD-3A.2 A
4BD-3A.3 C
4BD-3A.4 D
4BD-3B.1 B
4BD-3B.2 D
4BD-3C.1 B
4BD-3D.1 C
4BD-4.1 A
4BD-4.2 B
4BD-4.3 C
4BD-4.4 D
4BD-4.5 A
4BD-4.6 D
4BD-4.7 C
4BD-4.8 D
4BD-4.9 B
4BD-4.10 C
4BE-1.1 B
4BE-1.2 A
4BE-1.3 D
4BE-1.4 C
4BE-1.5 D
4BE-1.6 A
4BE-1.7 B
4BE-1.8 D
4BE-2A.1 D
4BE-2A.2 C
4BE-2A.3 B
4BE-2A.4 A
4BE-2A.5 D
4BE-2A.6 D
4BE-2B.1 C
4BE-2B.2 D
4BE-2B.3 C
4BE-2B.4 A
4BE-2B.5 B
4BE-2B.6 B
4BE-2B.7 C
4BE-2B.8 C
4BE-2B.9 B
4BE-2B.10 D
4BE-2B.11 A
4BE-2B.12 A
4BE-2B.13 B
4BE-2B.14 A
4BE-2B.15 D
4BE-2B.16 A
4BE-2B.17 C
4BE-2B.18 D
4BE-2B.19 D
4BE-2B.20 A
4BE-2B.21 D
4BE-2B.22 C
4BE-3.1 A
4BE-3.2 B
4BE-3.3 C
4BE-3.4 C
4BE-3.5 B
4BE-3.6 C
4BE-3.7 D
4BE-3.8 C
4BE-3.9 B
4BE-4.1 A
4BE-4.2 B
4BE-4.3 A
4BE-4.4 D
4BE-4.5 A
4BE-5.1 B
4BE-5.2 C
4BE-5.3 D
4BE-5.4 A
4BE-5.5 A
4BE-6A.1 B
4BE-6A.2 C
4BE-6A.3 D
4BE-6A.4 B
4BE-6A.5 C
4BE-6B.1 B
4BE-6B.2 C
4BE-6B.3 B
4BE-6B.4 A
4BE-6B.5 D
4BF-1A.1 D
4BF-1B.1 A
4BF-1C.1 A
4BF-1C.2 B
4BF-1C.3 C
4BF-1C.4 D
4BF-1C.5 D
4BF-1D.1 C
4BF-1D.2 A
4BF-1E.1 A
4BF-1E.2 D
4BF-1E.3 D
4BF-1F.1 B
4BF-1F.2 A
4BF-2.1 A
4BF-2.2 A
4BF-2.3 B
4BF-2.4 A
4BF-2.5 C
4BF-2.6 D
4BF-2.7 A
4BF-3.1 D
4BF-3.2 D
4BF-3.3 B
4BF-4.1 B
4BF-4.2 C
4BF-4.3 A
4BF-4.4 A
4BF-4.5 C
4BF-4.6 D
4BF-5.1 B
4BF-5.2 B
4BF-5.3 C
4BF-6.1 C
4BF-6.2 D
4BF-6.3 D
4BG-1A.1 D
4BG-1A.2 A
4BG-1A.3 C
4BG-1A.4 C
4BG-1A.5 C
4BG-1A.6 C
4BG-1A.7 B
4BG-1B.1 D
4BG-1B.2 A
4BG-1C.1 A
4BG-1C.2 A
4BG-1C.3 D
4BG-1C.4 B
4BG-1C.5 A
4BG-1C.6 D
4BG-1C.7 C
4BG-1C.8 D
4BG-1C.9 A
4BG-1C.10 A
4BG-1D.1 C
4BG-1D.2 D
4BG-1D.3 A
4BG-1D.4 A
4BG-1D.5 D
4BG-2A.1 D
4BG-2A.2 C
4BG-2B.1 D
4BG-2B.2 A
4BG-2B.3 B
4BG-2B.4 B
4BG-3A.1 D
4BG-3A.2 B
4BG-3A.3 D
4BG-3B.1 C
4BG-3B.2 A
4BG-3B.3 D
4BG-3B.4 A
4BG-4A.1 D
4BG-4A.2 A
4BG-4A.3 B
4BG-4B.1 B
4BG-4B.2 B
4BG-4B.3 D
4BG-4B.4 B
4BG-4B.5 B
4BG-4B.6 B
4BG-4B.7 B
4BG-4B.8 A
4BG-4B.9 D
4BG-4B.10 D
4BG-4C.1 C
4BG-4C.2 D
4BG-4C.3 A
4BG-4C.4 B
4BG-4D.1 C
4BG-4D.2 C
4BG-5A.1 A
4BG-5B.1 B
4BG-5C.1 D
4BG-5C.2 C
4BG-5C.3 B
4BG-5C.4 C
4BG-5D.1 D
4BG-6.1 C
4BG-6.2 A
4BG-7.1 A
4BG-7.2 A
4BG-8.1 C
4BG-8.2 A
4BH-1A.1 A
4BH-1A.2 C
4BH-1B.1 D
4BH-1B.2 A
4BH-1B.3 C
4BH-2A.1 D
4BH-2B.1 C
4BH-2B.2 A
4BH-2B.3 B
4BH-2C.1 C
4BH-2D.1 D
4BH-2D.2 A
4BH-2E.1 D
4BH-2E.2 B
4BH-2E.3 C
4BH-2E.4 B
4BH-2F.1 B
4BH-2F.2 B
4BH-2F.3 B
4BH-2F.4 B
4BH-2F.5 C
4BH-2F.6 C
4BH-2F.7 D
4BH-2F.8 A
4BH-2F.9 A
4BH-2F.10 C
4BH-2F.11 C
4BH-2F.12 B
4BH-2F.13 B
4BH-2F.14 C
4BH-2F.15 C
4BH-3.1 C
4BH-3.2 A
4BH-3.3 A
4BH-3.4 D
4BH-3.5 B
4BH-4.1 D
4BH-4.2 A
4BH-4.3 B
4BH-5.1 D
4BH-5.2 D
4BH-6A.1 A
4BH-6A.2 B
4BH-6A.3 A
4BI-1A.1 A
4BI-1B.1 A
4BI-1B.2 D
4BI-1B.3 B
4BI-1B.4 B
4BI-1B.5 A
4BI-1B.6 B
4BI-1C.1 D
4BI-1C.2 D
4BI-2A.1 D
4BI-2A.2 A
4BI-2A.3 C
4BI-2A.4 C
4BI-2A.5 A
4BI-2A.6 D
4BI-2A.7 D
4BI-2A.8 A
4BI-2A.9 B
4BI-3A.1 B
4BI-3B.1 A
4BI-3B.2 A
4BI-3B.3 D
4BI-3B.4 D
4BI-3C.1 B
4BI-3C.2 C
4BI-4A.1 A
4BI-4A.2 A
4BI-4A.3 B
4BI-4A.4 C
4BI-4B.1 D
4BI-4B.2 B
4BI-4B.3 B
4BI-4B.4 C
4BI-4B.5 D
4BI-4C.1 C
4BI-4C.2 C
4BI-5.1 B
4BI-5.2 A
4BI-5.3 D
4BI-5.4 B
4BI-5.5 A
4BI-6A.1 C
4BI-6A.2 C
4BI-6B.1 A
4BI-6B.2 B
4BI-6C.1 C
4BI-6C.2 C
4BI-6D.1 B
4BI-6D.2 A